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WAEC Economics 2020
Questions & Answers

40 questions · Correct answers highlighted · 40 with explanations

40 Total Questions
2020 Exam Year
40 With Explanations
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1
Question 1 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Which of the following is central to the definition of Economics?

A. Resources
B. Wants
C. Scarcity
D. Capital
Explanation

1) Distractor check: Students often mistakenly select wants or resources because these terms appear frequently in discussions about wealth, but they miss the core dilemma studied by economists. 2) Reasoning to the answer: The fundamental focus of economics is scarcity, which arises because human wants are unlimited while the available resources to satisfy them are strictly limited, compelling societies to make difficult choices regarding production and allocation. 3) Common mistake: Confusing the mere presence of resources or wants with the core economic problem of scarcity.

2
Question 2 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

When the production possibility curve shifts outwards, the economy experiences

A. growth
B. over-production
C. inefficient use of resources
D. under-production
Explanation

1) Distractor check: Inefficient use of resources or under-production might be chosen if a student confuses an expansion of productive capacity with temporary output shortfalls or idle factories. 2) Reasoning to the answer: When a production possibility curve shifts outward, it reflects an overall increase in the potential output of an economy, typically driven by technological improvements or resource accumulation, which defines economic growth. 3) Common mistake: Confusing a movement toward the curve with an outward shift of the entire curve.

3
Question 3 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Land as a factor of production is made useful through the

A. application of human effort
B. acts of nature
C. application of fertilizer
D. use of machines
Explanation

1) Distractor check: Acts of nature might be incorrectly picked because land originates as a natural gift, but this ignores what actually transforms it into a productive asset. 2) Reasoning to the answer: Although land is initially a passive input provided completely by nature, it requires human labor and physical effort to organize, cultivate, and convert into a useful tool for generating output. 3) Common mistake: Forgetting that natural resources require human effort to become economically productive.

4
Question 4 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

In a free market economy, resources are allocated through the

A. government department
B. price mechanism
C. trade union
D. state planning committee
Explanation

1) Distractor check: State planning committee or government department are frequently chosen by students who confuse market-driven systems with centrally planned economies. 2) Reasoning to the answer: Resource allocation in a free market relies entirely on the price mechanism, where the interplay of supply and demand communicates shifting consumer preferences and relative scarcity through price adjustments. 3) Common mistake: Mixing up free market price signaling with government-directed resource allocation.

5
Question 5 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

The reward for land as a factor of production is

A. interest
B. rent
C. wages
D. profit
Explanation

1) Distractor check: Wages or interest are common incorrect choices if a student mixes up the factor payments associated with labor or capital versus natural resources. 2) Reasoning to the answer: Land earns rent as its specific factor payment, separating it clearly from wages earned by labor, interest paid to capital, and profits claimed by entrepreneurship. 3) Common mistake: Confusing the financial reward for land (rent) with the return on capital (interest).

6
Question 6 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A price ceiling below the equilibrium price will lead to

A. Surplus
B. Shortage
C. Equilibrium
D. Increased supply
Explanation

1) Distractor check: Surplus might be mistakenly chosen if a student confuses price ceilings with price floors, which restrict prices from falling instead of capping them below market clearing levels. 2) Reasoning to the answer: Enforcing a price ceiling below equilibrium creates an artificial maximum, causing consumer demand to outstrip available supply as buyers rush to purchase the underpriced goods, generating a market shortage. 3) Common mistake: Confusing the market outcomes of price ceilings (shortages) with price floors (surpluses).

7
Question 7 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Goods are described as inferior if their demand

A. decreases as price falls
B. increases as income rises
C. decreases as income increases
D. increases as price increases
Explanation

A student might incorrectly choose options A or D because they focus on price changes, whereas the definition of inferior goods specifically relies on how consumer earnings affect demand. Because these items feature negative income elasticity of demand, a rise in earnings causes consumers to shift toward superior alternatives, reducing the amount they buy of low-quality substitutes. Common mistake: Confusing price-demand relationships with income-demand shifts.

8
Question 8 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A consumer is in equilibrium when

A. his market supply is equal to his market demand
B. he maximizes his satisfaction from spending his income
C. the market is also in equilibrium
D. he has consumed all he wants
Explanation

Option D might seem plausible because people often think satisfaction means consuming endlessly, but equilibrium is about optimization rather than exhaustion. A consumer reaches this balance when the marginal utility per unit of money spent is equal across all purchased goods, thereby achieving the highest total satisfaction from a given income. Common mistake: Assuming equilibrium means having no desire to consume more.

9
Question 9 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Goods that are abundant in supply usually have low

A. total utility
B. marginal utility
C. average utility
D. time utility
Explanation

A student might select option A because they confuse the abundance of a commodity with its overall worth, but total utility relates to cumulative satisfaction rather than current availability. The law of diminishing marginal utility explains that when a resource is plentiful, the satisfaction gained from each extra unit drops because consumers value additional quantities much less. Common mistake: Confusing overall cumulative utility with the incremental satisfaction of an extra unit.

10
Question 10 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

An increase in supply means that

A. more is sold at different prices
B. more is sold at the same price
C. there is a leftward shift of the supply curve
D. there is a movement along the supply curve
Explanation

Option D is a tempting distractor because learners often mix up shifts in a curve with movements along it caused by price alterations. An expansion in supply is represented by a rightward shift of the supply curve, which is driven by favorable factors like technological improvements or lower production costs, allowing a larger quantity to be offered and sold at the identical price. Common mistake: Confusing a shift of the entire supply curve with a movement along it.

11
Question 11 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

If an increase in the price of crude oil led to an increase in the prices of kerosene and grease, then kerosene and grease are in

A. joint supply
B. competitive supply
C. market supply
D. composite supply
Explanation

A student might mistakenly pick option B or D by thinking of substitutes or general market availability, but the question describes items derived from a shared source. When multiple products are generated together from a single production process, such as petroleum refining yielding kerosene and grease, an increase in the output of one naturally raises the supply and price of the others, demonstrating joint supply. Common mistake: Confusing joint production with competitive supply relationships.

12
Question 12 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A seller increased the quantity he offered for sale from 200 units to 250 units when price of his product increased by 12.5%. What is the price elasticity of supply of his product?

A. 2.00
B. 1.50
C. 1.00
D. 0.50
Explanation

Option C might be chosen if a student incorrectly assumes that equal percentage changes always result in a unit elasticity value of 1.00. Price elasticity of supply is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity supplied by the percentage change in price, which yields 25 percent divided by 12.5 percent, resulting in 2.00 to indicate elastic supply. Common mistake: Incorrectly computing the percentage change in quantity supplied relative to the price change.

13
Question 13 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

If an increase in the supply of beef increased the supply of hides, then beef and hides are in

A. competitive supply
B. joint supply
C. composite supply
D. joint demand
Explanation

Option A or C might look correct if the student misinterprets how livestock products relate to one another in the market. Since cattle slaughter yields both beef and hides simultaneously through the same production process, an increase in beef availability automatically causes an increase in hide availability, which is the definition of joint supply. Common mistake: Confusing joint production outputs with competitive goods.

14
Question 14 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

If a beef market is in equilibrium at $4.00 per kg, an increase in price to $6.00 per kg may cause

A. surplus in the market
B. shortage in the market
C. black market to come into operation
D. rationing to be introduced
Explanation

A student might incorrectly guess option B by assuming any price hike restricts buying, but raising the price above the market clearing point alters the balance between buyers and sellers. When the price is pushed above equilibrium to $6.00 per kg, the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded, resulting in excess supply or a surplus that creates downward pressure on prices. Common mistake: Confusing an above-equilibrium price condition with a market shortage.

15
Question 15 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A large firm may experience diseconomies of scale if there is

A. difficulty in coordinating decisions
B. division of labour in production
C. employment of more specialists
D. decrease in the cost of production
Explanation

Options B and C might be chosen because division of labor and specialists are associated with large firms, but those typically lead to economies rather than diseconomies of scale. As an organization grows very large, coordination challenges, bureaucratic delays, and communication breakdowns emerge, which push average costs upward and cause diseconomies of scale. Common mistake: Associating internal specialization with cost increases rather than efficiencies.

16
Question 16 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Increasing returns to scale suggests that

A. a firm can make profit by reducing output
B. a firm can make more profit by increasing output
C. as the producer reduces the quantity of raw materials used, the marginal product will double
D. as the producer increases the quantity of raw materials used, the marginal product will fall
Explanation

Option A is a plausible distractor for a student who misreads how productivity scales affect a business's financial outcomes. Increasing returns to scale mean that output grows at a faster rate than inputs, which reduces average costs and allows a firm to generate greater profits by expanding its scale of production. Common mistake: Believing that lowering output improves profitability during increasing returns.

17
Question 17 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

One feature of the average fixed cost is that it

A. falls continuously but is never equal to zero
B. is U-shaped and intersects the Y-axis
C. rises and falls faster than the marginal cost
D. is always higher than the average variable cost
Explanation

Option B is a common wrong choice because total and marginal cost curves are frequently associated with U-shapes, leading students to misapply that shape to fixed costs. Average fixed cost is calculated as total fixed cost divided by output, meaning it declines continuously as production rises while approaching zero asymptotically without ever touching it due to persistent fixed costs. Common mistake: Assuming average fixed cost shares the U-shape of variable or marginal costs.

18
Question 18 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

The public sector in a mixed economy is not always efficient because of

A. bureaucratic practices
B. the desire to make huge profit
C. annual planning of activities
D. the activities of shareholders
Explanation

Option B is tempting because state-owned enterprises often struggle financially, but the public sector is generally not driven by the pursuit of huge profits. Inefficiency in public enterprises typically arises from bureaucratic red tape, political interference, and a lack of competitive pressure, resulting in inflated costs and sluggish decision-making. Common mistake: Attributing public sector inefficiency to a profit-seeking motive.

19
Question 19 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Which function of the wholesaler enables him to stabilize prices?

A. Warehousing goods
B. Advertising the goods
C. Granting credit to retailers
D. Transporting goods
Explanation

Options B, C, and D are standard wholesaler functions, but none of them directly address market fluctuations the way storage does. By warehousing goods, a wholesaler can hold stock during gluts to prevent price crashes and release those stored goods during shortages to prevent sharp price spikes, thereby stabilizing the market. Common mistake: Confusing general marketing services with the specific price-stabilizing role of storage.

20
Question 20 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

In the long run, as individuals receive higher wages, it causes

A. demand for food to decrease
B. demand for leisure to decrease
C. supply of normal goods to decrease
D. supply of labour to decrease
Explanation

Options A or B might be chosen by assuming higher earnings simply reduce all consumption or change leisure preferences arbitrarily. In the long run, higher wages increase the opportunity cost of leisure, but the income effect ultimately dominates for many workers, resulting in a backward-bending labor supply curve where higher pay leads to a reduction in the supply of labor. Common mistake: Forgetting the dominance of the income effect on long-run labor supply.

21
Question 21 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Population growth rate can be calculated as

A. birth rate - death rate - emigrants - immigrants
B. birth rate - death rate + migration rate - immigration rate
C. birth rate - death rate
D. birth rate - death rate + immigrants - emigrants
Explanation

Option A or B might seem plausible due to the plus and minus signs, but a student must properly account for both natural increase and net migration. Population growth rate is determined by taking the birth rate minus the death rate, and then adding net migration, which is represented by immigrants minus emigrants. Common mistake: Incorrectly subtracting net migration instead of adding it.

22
Question 22 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Labour productivity is defined as

A. output per man hour
B. average output
C. the maximum number of hours worked
D. total output of labour
Explanation

Options B, C, and D are easy traps for students who confuse total output with efficiency metrics or working hours. Labor productivity is specifically defined as output produced per unit of labor input, typically measured as output per man-hour or per worker, serving as a key indicator of economic efficiency. Common mistake: Confusing total aggregate output with per-worker or per-hour efficiency.

23
Question 23 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Which of the following problems has the least effect on agricultural productivity in West Africa?

A. Incidence of pests and diseases
B. Unfavourable weather conditions
C. Urban - rural migration
D. Illiteracy
Explanation

Options A, B, and C are direct physical or demographic threats to farming outputs, making them major concerns in the region. Illiteracy has a much lesser direct impact on agricultural productivity compared to crop-destroying pests and diseases, unpredictable weather variations, and rural-urban migration that creates labor shortages. Common mistake: Overestimating the immediate impact of educational levels on crop yields compared to physical threats.

24
Question 24 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

The location of iron and steel industry at a place is due to

A. easy access to raw materials
B. access to cheap labour
C. government policy
D. good infrastructure
Explanation

Options B, C, and D represent general industrial advantages, but heavy industries have a specific primary locational driver. Iron and steel operations require massive quantities of heavy and bulky inputs like iron ore and coal, making proximity to raw materials essential to minimize transportation costs. Common mistake: Prioritizing general infrastructure or labor over heavy raw material transport needs.

25
Question 25 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Import substitution as a strategy of industrialization is the

A. replacement of locally produced goods with imported ones
B. development of local firms to produce local goods that are imported
C. establishment of firms to process imported raw materials
D. act of using local inputs to produce goods for export
Explanation

Option A is a distractor because it reverses the direction of trade and local manufacturing goals. Import substitution industrialization involves developing domestic firms to produce the manufactured goods that were previously bought from overseas, thereby cutting foreign dependence and fostering local industrial growth. Common mistake: Confusing import substitution with the importation of foreign-made goods.

26
Question 26 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Which of the following are intermediate products?

A. Cement and steel
B. Furniture and shirt
C. Handkerchief and shoe
D. Table and door
Explanation

Options B, C, and D all represent finished items ready for direct consumer use, making them final products rather than inputs. Cement and steel are classic intermediate products because they are utilized as raw materials or inputs in further production processes, such as construction and manufacturing. Common mistake: Confusing construction inputs with finished household goods.

27
Question 27 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

How is NNP at factor cost derived from GNP at market prices?

A. GNP - Depreciation + Indirect taxes + Subsidies
B. GNP - Depreciation - Indirect taxes + Subsidies
C. GNP + Depreciation - Indirect taxes - Subsidies
D. Indirect taxes - Indirect taxes + Subsidies - Depreciation
Explanation

Option C or D might be selected if a student confuses the direction of adjustments for depreciation, taxes, and subsidies. Net National Product at factor cost is derived by taking Gross National Product at market prices, subtracting depreciation to get net figures, subtracting indirect taxes because they inflate market prices, and adding subsidies since they lower production costs to factor level. Common mistake: Incorrectly adding indirect taxes or subtracting subsidies when converting market prices to factor cost.

28
Question 28 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Which of the following factors may lead to under-estimation of national income figures?

A. Availability of skilled statisticians
B. High volume of exports
C. Emigration of skilled workers to foreign countries
D. Subsistence production
Explanation

Options A, B, and C describe administrative or trade factors that improve data collection or reflect open trade, rather than hiding economic activity. Subsistence production involves goods grown or made for self-consumption within households and farms, which typically bypasses market transactions and remains unrecorded in official national income figures, leading to underestimation. Common mistake: Assuming all domestic output is automatically captured by market statistics.

29
Question 29 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Inflation may occur if

A. productivity is higher than wage rate
B. prices fluctuate during a particular season of the year
C. wage increase is granted without increase in productivity
D. government embarks on restrictive monetary policies
Explanation

Options A, B, and D fail to connect wage dynamics directly with general price level increases. When wage increases are granted without a corresponding rise in worker productivity, production costs rise for firms, which then pass those higher costs onto consumers, resulting in cost-push inflation. Common mistake: Believing wage increases alone without productivity gains are non-inflationary.

30
Question 30 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Money would cease to be a good store of value when

A. prices of goods and services are falling slowly
B. there is high level of unemployment
C. prices of goods and services are rising rapidly
D. prices of goods and services are rising slowly
Explanation

Options A, B, and D either describe stable conditions or mild price changes that do not destroy the fundamental purchasing power of currency. When prices rise rapidly during hyperinflation, the purchasing power of money erodes swiftly, destroying its viability as a reliable store of value over time. Common mistake: Confusing mild price changes with the severe purchasing power destruction of rapid inflation.

31
Question 31 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Governments in West Africa can curtail inflation by

A. purchasing securities in the open market
B. selling securities in the open market
C. encouraging importation of goods from all countries
D. encouraging banks to lend for consumption
Explanation

Option A or D would actually increase liquidity or encourage spending, which worsens rather than cures inflation. Governments and central banks can curtail inflation by selling securities through open market operations, which absorbs excess liquidity from commercial banks and reduces the overall money supply. Common mistake: Confusing open market purchases with sales when trying to reduce money supply.

32
Question 32 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

The central bank can reduce the ability of commercial banks to give out loans by

A. raising the bank rate
B. reducing special deposit
C. reducing the liquidity ratio
D. issuing more currency
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might choose C, assuming that lowering the liquidity ratio restricts commercial bank lending, but doing so actually allows them to lend more freely. Reasoning to the answer: By raising the bank rate, the central bank increases borrowing costs for commercial banks. This discourages borrowing from the central bank, thereby decreasing their overall reserves and constraining their lending capacity. Common mistake: Confusing the direction of the bank rate; raising it restricts lending, whereas lowering it encourages lending.

33
Question 33 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Tools of monetary policy do not include

A. open market operations
B. reserve requirement
C. bank rate
D. tax and public expenditure
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might select B or C, thinking reserve requirements or bank rates are outside monetary policy, but these are core monetary tools. Reasoning to the answer: Monetary policy involves controlling the money supply via open market operations, reserve requirements, and interest rates. In contrast, tax and public expenditure belong to fiscal policy. Common mistake: Failing to distinguish between fiscal policy tools (like taxation and public spending) and monetary policy tools.

34
Question 34 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

During inflation, the appropriate fiscal measure to adopt is to

A. increase indirect taxes
B. increase direct taxes
C. reduce personal income tax
D. increase government expenditure
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might mistakenly pick C, thinking that tax relief helps during economic downturns, or pick D, which would fuel inflation by increasing spending. Reasoning to the answer: When facing inflationary pressures, the appropriate fiscal measure is to increase direct taxes. This specific action reduces disposable income and aggregate demand, thereby helping to slow down consumer spending. Common mistake: Reversing the tax policy for inflation, choosing to lower taxes instead of raising them.

35
Question 35 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Mr. X and Mrs. Y pay $500.00 and $1,400.00 as taxes on their earnings of $5,000.00 and $7,000.00 respectively. The system of taxation employed is

A. specific tax
B. proportional tax
C. regressive tax
D. progressive tax
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might mistakenly choose proportional tax if they miscalculate and assume the tax rate is constant. Reasoning to the answer: Higher income payers face higher tax rates, as seen by the 10% rate paid on $5,000 and the 20% rate paid on $7,000. Because the tax burden increases disproportionately with income, this system of taxation employed is progressive. Common mistake: Confusing proportional taxation, where everyone pays a flat percentage, with progressive taxation, where the rate scales up with income.

36
Question 36 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Expenditure on food takes a large proportion of incomes of people in

A. industrialized countries
B. advanced countries
C. developing countries
D. capitalist countries
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might pick A or B, confusing the consumption patterns of wealthier nations with developing economies. Reasoning to the answer: Unlike wealthier nations where spending diversifies across many sectors, lower incomes in developing countries mean a higher proportion of income is spent on necessities like food, adhering to Engel's Law. Common mistake: Assuming all regions allocate their budgets equally across goods regardless of national income levels.

37
Question 37 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A country should embark on development planning to ensure that

A. it becomes popular among the comity of nations
B. it increases in the market
C. its scarce productive resources are efficiently utilized
D. the nation is able to contribute its own quota to international organizations
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might select A, assuming international popularity is the primary goal of economic policy. Reasoning to the answer: A country should embark on development planning to allocate scarce resources efficiently to achieve growth objectives. This process prioritizes various sectors to ensure balanced and sustainable economic progress. Common mistake: Believing national planning is primarily about international prestige rather than domestic resource allocation.

38
Question 38 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

A country is allowed to import just 50,000 tonnes of rice annually. This describes

A. devaluation
B. tariff
C. embargo
D. quota
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might choose B, confusing a limit on quantity with a tax on imports. Reasoning to the answer: Restricting supply to protect domestic producers is achieved through a quantitative limit on imports, which in this case allows just 50,000 tonnes of rice annually, perfectly describing a quota. Common mistake: Confusing a quota (a physical limit) with a tariff (a tax on imports).

39
Question 39 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

Dumping is selling goods in a foreign market at a price

A. below what is sold at the home market
B. above what is sold at the home market
C. equal to what is sold at the home market
D. equal to the cost of producing the goods
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might pick D, confusing dumping with pricing goods strictly at their cost of production. Reasoning to the answer: Dumping involves exporting goods at prices lower than the domestic market or production costs in order to capture foreign markets, a practice that often harms local competitors. Common mistake: Thinking dumping means selling goods at equal prices across all markets.

40
Question 40 of 40
WAEC · Economics · 2020

The principle of comparative advantage encourages a country to

A. produce only consumer goods
B. engage in trade if it can produce a commodity at a lower cost
C. specialize in the production of all goods
D. try as much as possible to be self-sufficient
Explanation

Distractor check: A student might choose D, assuming that the goal of trade is complete self-sufficiency. Reasoning to the answer: The principle of comparative advantage promotes trade by specializing in goods that carry a lower opportunity cost relative to others. This allows for mutual gains even if one trading partner is absolutely less efficient at production. Common mistake: Believing a country must hold an absolute advantage in all goods before it can benefit from international trade.

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